From: | Barbara Legate <blegate@legate.ca> |
To: | Jones, Michael <M.A.Jones@liverpool.ac.uk> |
Neil Foster <Neil.Foster@newcastle.edu.au> | |
CC: | Andrew Tettenborn <A.M.Tettenborn@swansea.ac.uk> |
Marc Ramsay <marc.ramsay@acadiau.ca> | |
obligations@uwo.ca | |
Date: | 18/10/2010 01:39:30 UTC |
Subject: | RE: informed consent/neglience question |
It seems to me that respect for autonomy
of the person trumps in this case. If the law is to respect one’s dominion over
his or her body, however the decision is reached, it must be respected, in
particular where a practitioner has withheld information.
This has been an enlightening discussion.
Thank you.
Barb
From: Jones, Michael
[mailto:M.A.Jones@liverpool.ac.uk]
Sent: Friday, October 15, 2010
9:55 AM
To: 'Neil Foster'; Barbara Legate
Cc: Andrew Tettenborn; Marc
Ramsay; obligations@uwo.ca
Subject: RE: informed
consent/neglience question
Dear
The point has arisen in
the Scottish case of Moyes v Lothian Health
Board [1990] 1 Med LR 463 at 467 (Court of Session, Outer House).
Lord Caplan accepted the pursuer's argument that failure to warn about overall
risk could establish causation where the risk that actually materialised had
been warned about:
"The ordinary person who has to consider whether or not to have an
operation is not interested in the exact pathological genesis of the various
complications which can occur but rather in the nature and extent of the
risk. The patient would want to know what chance there was of the
operation going wrong and if it did what would happen. If we were to
suppose a situation where an operation would give rise to a one per cent. risk
of serious complication in the ordinary case but where there could be four
other special factors each adding a further one per cent. to the risk, a
patient to whom all five factors applied might have a five per cent. risk
rather than the one per cent. risk of the average person. It is perfectly
conceivable that a patient might be prepared to accept the risk of one in 100
but not be prepared to face up to a risk of one in 20. If a doctor
contrary to established practice failed to warn the patient of the four special
risks but did warn the patient of the standard risk and then the patient suffered
complication caused physiologically by the standard risk factor rather [than]
by one or other of the four special risk factors I do not think the doctor
should escape the consequences of not having warned the patient of the added
risks which that patient was exposed to. A patient might well with
perfect reason consider that if there were five risk factors rather than one
then the chance of one or other of these factors materialising was much
greater. The coincidence that the damage which occurred was due to the
particular factor in respect of which a warning was given does not alter the
fact that the patient was not properly warned of the total risks inherent in
the operation and thus could not make an informed decision as to whether or not
to go through with it... If he had been given due warning he would not have
risked suffering adverse complication from that particular operation and the
fact that such complication occurred is causal connection enough to found a
claim against the doctor."
However, the pursuer
failed on causation on credibility as to whether she would have declined
treatment if informed about the risks, since she had said in evidence that she
knew that general anaesthetic posed a risk (which she was willing to accept),
and she estimated (wrongly) that this was about 5%, when the total risk from
the procedure in question (angiography) and the anaesthetic was much lower.
With regard to Jane’s “scope of liability for
consequences” point, presumably there is scope for disagreement as to what the
scope of liability for the consequences should be in the case of a doctor
failing to warn about risks of treatment. If one accepts the argument of the
majority in
Best wishes,
Michael
------------------------------------------
Michael A. Jones
Professor
of Common Law
L69 7ZS
Phone: 0151 794 2821
Fax:
0151 794 2829
------------------------------------------
From: Neil Foster
[mailto:Neil.Foster@newcastle.edu.au]
Sent: 15 October 2010 00:48
To: Barbara Legate
Cc: Andrew Tettenborn; Marc
Ramsay; obligations@uwo.ca
Subject: Re: informed
consent/neglience question
Dear Colleagues;
There is such a case in
…a medical practitioner
will not be held liable for the failure to warn a patient of a material risk of
damage to 'her laryngeal nerve', if the injury that eventuated resulted from a
misapplication of anaesthetic. This is so despite the fact that the patient
would not have had the treatment and therefore would not have suffered the
injury from the misapplication of anaesthetic if the patient had been warned of
the risk to "her laryngeal nerve". This can be seen as an example of
a situation where the application of the 'but for' test would lead to an
unacceptable result.
In effect this
seems to be an application of the well-known example of the mountaineer given
by Lord Hoffmann in Banque Bruxelles Lambert SA v Eagle Star
Insurance Co Ltd [1996]
UKHL 10; [1997] AC 191 at 213:
"A
mountaineer about to undertake a difficult climb is concerned about the
fitness of his knee. He goes to a doctor who negligently makes a superficial
examination and pronounces the knee fit. The climber goes on the expedition,
which he would not have undertaken if the doctor had told him the true state of
his knee. He suffers an injury which is an entirely foreseeable consequence of
mountaineering but has nothing to do with his knee.
On
the Court of Appeal's principle, the doctor is responsible for the injury
suffered by the mountaineer because it is damage which would not
have occurred if he had been given correct information about his knee. He would
not have gone on the expedition and would have suffered no injury. On what I
have suggested is the more usual principle, the doctor is not liable. The
injury has not been caused by the doctor's bad advice because it would have
occurred even if the advice had been correct."
Regards
Neil
On 15/10/2010, at 8:15 AM, Barbara Legate wrote:
I would say there is
liability. The issue is on causation is whether the patient would have
undertaken the surgery if fully informed of the risks. If the answer is no, the
risk of partial paralysis being the tipping point, then as a matter of a
finding of fact, the surgery would not have occurred and the loss would not
have occurred. Similarly, if a patient should hear of several risks, none of
them terrible, but one of which would be his tipping point – that is, it is one
too many, can he only sue for the one that tipped him over the edge, but none
of the others?
I have looked at this
before, and was unable to find any case that said, bluntly, that the risk that
was not warned of had to occur. I would be interested in any case which does
say that.
An interesting problem.
From: Andrew Tettenborn [mailto:A.M.Tettenborn@swansea.ac.uk]
Sent: October-14-10 10:54 AM
To: Marc Ramsay
Cc: obligations@uwo.ca
Subject: Re: informed consent/neglience
question
On 14/10/2010 15:33, Marc
Ramsay wrote:
I have a question about the Reibl v. Hughes test regarding
disclosure of material facts.
Suppose the following.
A patient consents to a surgical procedure.
A given risk, let's a 5 percent chance of partial paralysis, is determined to be
a material risk, and that risk is not disclosed. The physician doesn't
discuss this risk at all. There are no other problems with the quality of the
patient's consent.
The procedure is performed competently, but the patient suffers serious
injury. However, the injury is not a matter of the relevant risk
materializing.
The patient's loss concerns another risk which,
1) the patient was informed of (perhaps even signed a waiver regarding), or
2) an unforeseeable or previously unknown risk that the physician cannot been
have expected to know about or disclose (perhaps the patient suffers hearing
loss or loss of sight).
Is it appropriate to the proceed to the causation question in either of these
cases (what a reasonable patient would have chosen in the circumstances), or
are these kinds of losses to be treated as outside the scope of the physician's
wrongdoing?
Thanks,
Marc Ramsay
There
shouldn't be liability here. But the real issue is one of adventitious
causation. And there are plenty of examples stating that it's not necessarily
enough to show (1) a wrong by D, and (2) harm to P that technically wouldn't
have happened but for that wrong. Two below:
A. I drive the wrong way down a one-way street. Despite my exemplary look-out, a
valuable Persian cat runs in front of my car and gets squished. I don't think I
can be liable for the loss of the cat, even though it wouldn't have been killed
had I not (negligently) driven down the one-way street (since I would have been
somewhere else). The maritime decision in The Estrella [1977] 1 Lloyds Rep 525
has something of this about it.
B. The shipping case of The Empire Jamaica. [1957] AC 386. Shipowners show
personal fault in appointing a technically uncertificated officer. As a result
of other negligence by the officer, nothing to do with the lack of the
certificate, there is a casualty. Is the casualty due to the actual fault or
privity of the shipowners (on the basis that it wouldn't have happened if the
owners had done as they should and not appointed the officer)? No.
Best to all
Andrew
--
|
Andrew Tettenborn Ysgol y Gyfraith, Prifysgol Abertawe |
Lawyer (n): One versed in
circumvention of the law (Ambrose Bierce)
Neil Foster
Senior Lecturer, LLB
Program Convenor,
MC158,
ph 02 4921 7430 fax
02 4921 6931